Respuesta :

s418519

The Answer is false.

the function f (x) = x 2 is NOT one-to-one, and therefore cannot have an inverse.Therefore, the function f (x) = x 2 does NOT have an inverse.

altavistard

Answer:

False

Step-by-step explanation:

The inverse of f(x) = x^2 is not a function, since the graph fails the vertical line test:  a vertical line drawn thru the graph intersects it in 2 places (except at (0,0) ).