Ava45018 Ava45018

22-09-2020
Mathematics

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When turning the Riemann sum into the definite integral, why is the definite integral integral from 1 to 2 (x+1)²dx and not integral from 1 to 2 (x)²dx?

When turning the Riemann sum into the definite integral why is the definite integral integral from 1 to 2 x1dx and not integral from 1 to 2 xdx class=

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MathPhys MathPhys

22-09-2020

Step-by-step explanation:

You are correct, it should either be ∫₁² (x)² dx or ∫₀¹ (x+1)² dx.

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